which of the following best describes cushings syndrome
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following best describes Cushing’s syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, not growth hormone (Choice A), insulin (Choice C), or ACTH (Choice D). The increased cortisol levels lead to a variety of symptoms associated with Cushing’s syndrome.

2. A patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with an autoimmune disorder, a viral infection can trigger an immune response where lymphocytes mistakenly recognize the host's tissue as foreign. This can lead to an exacerbation of the autoimmune condition. Choice B is incorrect because erythrocytes are not responsible for destroying T cells. Choice C is incorrect as thymus involution weakens the immune response, making the patient more susceptible to infections rather than increasing the infection risk. Choice D is unrelated to the potential effects of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder.

3. The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.

4. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density, making it effective in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.

5. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.

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