which of the following best describes cushings syndrome
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following best describes Cushing’s syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, not growth hormone (Choice A), insulin (Choice C), or ACTH (Choice D). The increased cortisol levels lead to a variety of symptoms associated with Cushing’s syndrome.

2. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In assessing a child for migraines, asking about food allergies is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his headaches. Food allergies are unrelated to the typical symptoms and triggers of migraines, such as family history, associated symptoms like nausea and vomiting, and pain-free intervals between headaches. Therefore, in this scenario, focusing on food allergies is less relevant for identifying migraines as the cause of the boy's headaches.

3. A patient with a history of cardiovascular disease is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize regarding the long-term risks associated with HRT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease.

4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Choice A is incorrect because androgen therapy usually does not significantly increase the risk of liver dysfunction. Choice C is incorrect as androgen therapy does not increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it is sometimes used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Choice D is also incorrect as androgen therapy is more likely to improve bone density and reduce the risk of fractures.

5. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

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