ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. Which of the following best describes Cushing’s syndrome?
- A. Hypersecretion of growth hormone
- B. Excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands
- C. Insufficient production of insulin
- D. Increased levels of ACTH
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, not growth hormone (Choice A), insulin (Choice C), or ACTH (Choice D). The increased cortisol levels lead to a variety of symptoms associated with Cushing’s syndrome.
2. A child's thymus gland is fully formed and proportionately larger than an adult's. Which of the following processes that contribute to immunity takes place in the thymus gland?
- A. Differentiation of B cells
- B. Production of natural killer (NK) cells
- C. Proliferation of T cells
- D. Filtration of antigens from the blood
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferation of T cells. The thymus gland is responsible for the maturation and proliferation of T cells, which play a crucial role in adaptive immunity. Option A, differentiation of B cells, is incorrect because B cell maturation primarily occurs in the bone marrow. Option B, production of natural killer (NK) cells, is incorrect as NK cells are mainly produced in the bone marrow and lymph nodes. Option D, filtration of antigens from the blood, is incorrect as antigen filtration is not a primary function of the thymus gland.
3. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Liver function tests
- C. Kidney function tests
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During estradiol therapy, monitoring liver function tests is essential due to the potential for liver dysfunction. Estradiol can affect liver function, making it crucial to monitor enzyme levels. Choice A, blood glucose levels, is not directly impacted by estradiol therapy, making it an incorrect choice. Choice C, kidney function tests, is not typically affected by estradiol therapy, so it is not the priority for monitoring. Choice D, blood pressure, is also not the primary parameter to monitor during estradiol therapy unless there are pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.
4. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and tadalafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, the use of antihypertensive medications, and a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for tadalafil use.
5. A female patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. This medication may cause breakthrough bleeding or spotting.
- B. This medication may cause weight gain.
- C. This medication may increase your risk of developing diabetes.
- D. This medication may increase your risk of breast cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) can cause breakthrough bleeding or spotting, which is a common side effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased risk of diabetes, and increased risk of breast cancer are not commonly associated side effects of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the patient about the potential for breakthrough bleeding or spotting.
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