ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?
- A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
- B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
- C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
- D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.
2. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
- A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
- B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
- C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
- D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.
3. A nurse caring for a patient with a diagnosis of lung cancer is aware that the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer is:
- A. Alcohol consumption
- B. Smoking
- C. Poor diet
- D. Environmental exposure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer. Tobacco smoke contains numerous carcinogens that can damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer. Alcohol consumption (Choice A), poor diet (Choice C), and environmental exposure (Choice D) can contribute to overall health risks, but they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with the development of lung cancer.
4. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. BPH
- C. Chronic renal failure
- D. Type 2 diabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.
5. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the use of this medication?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Taking it at different times can lead to hormonal fluctuations and reduced medication efficacy. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice B is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management, not automatically leading to discontinuation of the medication.
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