atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to which causes
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form initially?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to injury to the coronary artery endothelium, which triggers a cascade of events leading to plaque buildup. Choice A is incorrect because atherosclerotic plaques do not form due to an interruption of blood flow to the brain. Choice C is incorrect as statin medications are actually used to help lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of plaque formation. Choice D is incorrect as poor dietary modifications can contribute to atherosclerosis but are not the initial cause of plaque formation.

2. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse include in the patient education about the use of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, or redness in the affected limb, and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes are a common side effect of tamoxifen but not a critical concern like venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because while weight gain can occur with tamoxifen, it is not as crucial to educate the patient about as the risk of venous thromboembolism.

3. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.

4. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.

5. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

Similar Questions

Right-sided heart failure is characterized by:
What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy?
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
What should a nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis?
Which of the following is NOT an example of clinical manifestations of leukemia and lymphoma?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses