Nursing Elites

1. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.

2. How does tamsulosin (Flomax) primarily benefit male patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

• A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
• B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
• C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
• D. Improvement in erectile function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamsulosin works by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, which helps improve urinary flow in patients with BPH. This relaxation reduces the symptoms associated with BPH, such as urinary hesitancy, urgency, and frequency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate gland. Choice C is incorrect as while tamsulosin does improve urine flow, its primary mechanism of action is through muscle relaxation rather than directly relieving obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function; its main therapeutic effect is targeted towards urinary symptoms related to BPH.

3. Which symptoms are typical of asthma?

• A. Chest pain; cough
• B. Diarrhea; wheezing
• C. Wheezing; dyspnea
• D. Tachypnea; constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wheezing and dyspnea are typical symptoms of asthma. Wheezing refers to a high-pitched whistling sound while breathing, and dyspnea is shortness of breath. These symptoms are classic signs of airway obstruction and inflammation seen in asthma. Choice A is incorrect as chest pain is not a typical symptom of asthma, though coughing can occur. Choice B is incorrect as diarrhea is not associated with asthma, while wheezing is a common symptom. Choice D is incorrect as tachypnea (rapid breathing) can occur in asthma, but constipation is not a typical symptom.

4. When assessing a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives, what should the nurse consider?

• A. The possibility of pregnancy
• B. The patient's adherence to the medication schedule
• C. The need for an increased dosage
• D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of missed doses or inconsistent use, which can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive. Considering the possibility of pregnancy (Choice A) is important but secondary to assessing adherence. The need for an increased dosage (Choice C) is not typically the first consideration for breakthrough bleeding. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (Choice D) is relevant but should come after assessing adherence to the medication schedule.

5. A client has experienced a pontine stroke which has resulted in severe hemiparesis. What priority assessment should the nurse perform prior to allowing the client to eat or drink from the food tray?

• A. Evaluate the client's gag reflex.
• B. Assess the client's bowel sounds.
• C. Check the client's pupil reaction.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's gag reflex. When a client has experienced a stroke resulting in severe hemiparesis, assessing the gag reflex is crucial before allowing them to eat or drink. This assessment helps prevent aspiration, a serious complication that can occur due to impaired swallowing ability. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice B), pupil reaction (Choice C), or heart rate (Choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where the risk of aspiration is higher.

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