Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease?

• A. Constipation with gastric distension.
• B. Bradycardia and bradypnea.
• C. Hyperthermia and tachycardia.
• D. Constipation and lethargy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease, the patient typically experiences symptoms such as hyperthermia (elevated body temperature) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate). These symptoms are indicative of the hypermetabolic state seen in thyroid storm. Choices A and D are incorrect as constipation and lethargy are not typical signs of a thyroid crisis; instead, patients with hyperthyroidism often experience diarrhea and agitation. Choice B is incorrect because bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow breathing rate) are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than a thyroid crisis in Graves' disease.

2. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

3. A patient is taking a statin for hyperlipidemia. What important instruction should the nurse provide to the patient?

• A. Take the medication at night to avoid muscle pain.
• B. Take the medication in the morning to ensure it works throughout the day.
• C. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication with a high-fat meal to increase absorption.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to take the medication at night to avoid muscle pain. Statins are known to potentially cause muscle pain or weakness; taking the medication at night can help reduce the incidence of these side effects. Option B is incorrect because the timing of statin administration is not related to its effectiveness throughout the day. Option C is a general precaution when taking medications but not the most important instruction specific to statins. Option D is incorrect as taking the medication with a high-fat meal can actually decrease its absorption.

4. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• B. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• C. Increased risk of bone fractures
• D. Increased risk of breast cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of liver dysfunction. Testosterone therapy can lead to liver dysfunction, including cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis. This adverse effect necessitates monitoring of liver function tests during testosterone therapy. Choice B, increased risk of prostate cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy does not cause prostate cancer but is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected prostate cancer. Choice C, increased risk of bone fractures, is incorrect as testosterone therapy is actually associated with an increase in bone mineral density, reducing the risk of fractures. Choice D, increased risk of breast cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy in males does not increase the risk of breast cancer.

5. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

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