ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Prednisone?
- A. Cushing’s disease
- B. Testicular cancer
- C. Lymphomas
- D. Chronic leukemias
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prednisone is not a common treatment for testicular cancer. Prednisone is used in conditions like Cushing’s disease, lymphomas, and chronic leukemias due to its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. However, testicular cancer treatment typically involves surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy, but not Prednisone.
2. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Bevacizumab is known to cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not typically associated with bevacizumab treatment. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of bevacizumab. Choice D, hypocalcemia, is not a recognized side effect of bevacizumab.
3. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.
4. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.
5. When completing a nursing history for a client taking Simvastatin, which of the following disorders should the nurse identify as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications?
- A. History of severe constipation
- B. History of hypertension
- C. Active hepatitis C
- D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ezetimibe is contraindicated in clients with active moderate-to-severe liver disorders, particularly if they are already on a statin like simvastatin. Hepatitis C is a liver condition that can be exacerbated by Ezetimibe, leading to potential complications. Therefore, the nurse should identify active hepatitis C as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the contraindication of Ezetimibe in clients taking Simvastatin.
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