ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause a non-productive cough due to its effect on bradykinin levels. The client should be advised to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to consider alternative treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not typically associated with Enalapril use.
2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
- B. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
- C. Expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded.
- D. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Verapamil is to increase their intake of high-fiber foods. Verapamil can cause constipation as a side effect, and increasing fiber intake can help prevent constipation. High-fiber foods promote bowel regularity and can counteract the constipating effects of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Verapamil with grapefruit juice can lead to adverse reactions, drowsiness or lightheadedness is not a typical side effect of Verapamil, and there is no need to avoid dairy products specifically while taking this medication.
3. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
- B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
- C. Expect a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid foods high in fiber.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Atenolol, a beta-blocker, they should monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. It is crucial because if the heart rate is below 60 bpm, the client needs to contact their healthcare provider for further guidance and evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Atenolol does not need to be taken with a high-fat meal, does not typically cause a persistent cough, and there is no need to avoid foods high in fiber when taking this medication.
4. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
5. What is the therapeutic use of metformin?
- A. Lower blood pressure
- B. Diminish seizure activity
- C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose levels
- D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Metformin is commonly prescribed to manage and control blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes. It helps in reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and improves the body's response to insulin, thereby aiding in the regulation of blood sugar levels. It is not used to lower blood pressure, diminish seizure activity, increase heart rate, or decrease gastrointestinal secretions.
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