Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for clients with Borderline personality disorder?

• A. Risk for injury
• B. Ineffective individual coping
• C. Altered thought process
• D. Sensory perceptual alteration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

2. Which food would benefit an anemic patient by increasing their intake?

• A. Beef
• B. Apples
• C. White bread
• D. Fish

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An anemic patient would benefit from increasing their intake of beef. Beef is an excellent source of heme iron, which is critical for treating anemia. Heme iron is absorbed more readily by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Apples and white bread, while healthy, do not contain significant amounts of heme iron. Fish, although it does contain iron, it's non-heme iron, which is not as efficiently absorbed by the body as heme iron, hence less effective in treating anemia.

3. A client with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is being taught about diet. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase intake of dietary phosphorus.
• B. Eliminate foods high in protein from your diet.
• C. Reduce intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. Increase intake of sodium-containing foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, reducing intake of foods high in potassium is crucial as impaired kidney function can lead to potassium buildup in the blood, which can be dangerous. High potassium levels can cause irregular heartbeats and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, advising the client to reduce potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing dietary phosphorus, eliminating foods high in protein, or increasing sodium-containing foods are not appropriate recommendations for a client with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease as they can exacerbate the condition.

4. You are teaching your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Both types of diabetes mellitus clients are prone to developing ketosis.
• B. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes, which is genetic.
• C. Type I (IIDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia.
• D. Type II (NIDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Type II diabetes (NIDDM) is characterized by insulin resistance and a relative lack of insulin. It is not primarily characterized by an abnormal immune response. Option A is incorrect because only Type I diabetes clients are prone to developing ketosis due to a lack of insulin. Option B is incorrect because while Type II diabetes is more common and often preventable through lifestyle changes, it is not solely genetic. Option C is incorrect because Type I diabetes, not Type II, is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia due to an absolute lack of insulin production.

5. Which of the following is a common sign of vitamin D deficiency?

• A. Brittle nails
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Night blindness
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common sign of vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption and bone health, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness. Brittle nails (Choice A) are not typically associated with vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (Choice C) is related to vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Hair loss (Choice D) can be linked to various factors, but it is not a common sign of vitamin D deficiency.

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