Nursing Elites

1. Each statement is true of rickets, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Rickets is being diagnosed more frequently in the United States.
• B. Rickets is caused by vitamin C deficiency.
• C. Tachetic deformities such as bow legs or knock-knees develop.
• D. A narrow and distorted chest occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin C deficiency. It usually occurs in children who are 1 to 3 years old. The name rickets came from the word 'wrikken,' meaning 'to bend or twist.' Common manifestations of rickets include tachetic deformities like bow legs or knock-knees, a narrow and distorted chest, and failure of the epiphyses of bones to develop normally, resulting in twisted and warped bones. While the diagnosis of rickets may be increasing in the United States, it is not caused by a lack of vitamin C.

2. A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a client who has Phenylketonuria (PKU) and is planning a pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the discussion?

• A. Diet sodas should not be consumed more than two or three times a week.
• B. Serum bilirubin should be monitored once or twice a month during pregnancy.
• C. Breastfeeding will not prevent your baby from developing PKU.
• D. A low-protein diet should be followed for three months before conception.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-protein diet should be followed for three months before conception in individuals with PKU who are planning a pregnancy. This diet helps manage PKU by reducing phenylalanine levels, which is crucial for maternal and fetal health. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not directly related to managing PKU, choice B focuses on a different aspect of care during pregnancy, and choice C is inaccurate as breastfeeding will not prevent a baby from developing PKU.

3. What health instruction will enhance regulation of a colostomy (defecation) of clients?

• A. Irrigate after lunch everyday
• B. Eat fruits and vegetables in all three meals
• C. Eat balanced meals at regular intervals
• D. Restrict exercise to walking only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

4. A client is being instructed by a nurse about foods that should be included in a low-fiber diet. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I can cut up carrots and celery sticks for my lunch.
• B. I will eat a bran muffin for my mid-morning snack.
• C. I will have oatmeal with skim milk for my breakfast.
• D. I should choose canned peaches for my fruit serving.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because canned peaches are lower in fiber compared to the other options. Carrots, celery sticks, bran muffins, and oatmeal are high-fiber choices, which are not suitable for a low-fiber diet. Choosing canned peaches aligns with the requirements of a low-fiber diet.

5. A client is on a 2,000-calorie American Diabetes Association (ADA) diet and substitutes whole milk with skim milk. Which of the following items can the client add to the oatmeal on his breakfast tray?

• A. One 1/8 teaspoon of salt
• B. One ounce of raisins
• C. One tablespoon of low-fat margarine
• D. One teaspoon of brown sugar

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is one ounce of raisins. Raisins are a healthy option to add to oatmeal as they provide natural sweetness without added sugars. They are a good source of fiber and essential nutrients. Option A, one 1/8 teaspoon of salt, is not necessary for flavoring oatmeal. Option C, one tablespoon of low-fat margarine, may add unnecessary fat to the meal. Option D, one teaspoon of brown sugar, adds extra sugar, which should be limited in a diabetes-friendly diet.

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