ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam
1. Each statement is true of rickets, except one. Which is the exception?
- A. Rickets is being diagnosed more frequently in the United States.
- B. Rickets is caused by vitamin C deficiency.
- C. Tachetic deformities such as bow legs or knock-knees develop.
- D. A narrow and distorted chest occurs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin C deficiency. It usually occurs in children who are 1 to 3 years old. The name rickets came from the word 'wrikken,' meaning 'to bend or twist.' Common manifestations of rickets include tachetic deformities like bow legs or knock-knees, a narrow and distorted chest, and failure of the epiphyses of bones to develop normally, resulting in twisted and warped bones. While the diagnosis of rickets may be increasing in the United States, it is not caused by a lack of vitamin C.
2. Which mineral-containing amino acids help to form the shape of proteins?
- A. phosphorus
- B. sulfur
- C. selenium
- D. iron
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sulfur. Sulfur-containing amino acids like cysteine and methionine play a crucial role in forming disulfide bonds within proteins. These bonds are essential for the proper folding and structural stability of proteins. Phosphorus (choice A), selenium (choice C), and iron (choice D) do not directly contribute to shaping proteins through bond formation.
3. A nurse is initiating continuous enteral feedings for a client who has a new gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client’s gastric residual every 12 hours.
- B. Obtain the client’s electrolyte levels every 4 hours.
- C. Keep the client’s head elevated at 15° during feedings.
- D. Flush the client’s tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Flushing the client’s tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours is essential to maintain tube patency and prevent blockages. This action helps ensure the continuous flow of enteral feedings without obstruction. Measuring the client’s gastric residual every 12 hours (Choice A) is important but not the priority when initiating enteral feedings. Obtaining the client’s electrolyte levels every 4 hours (Choice B) is unnecessary and not directly related to tube feeding initiation. Keeping the client’s head elevated at 15° during feedings (Choice C) is a good practice to prevent aspiration, but tube flushing is more crucial to prevent tube occlusion.
4. Which topical antimicrobial is most frequently used in burn wound care?
- A. Neosporin
- B. Silver nitrate
- C. Silver sulfadiazine
- D. Sulfamylon
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
5. Reducing the amount of trans fat in the diet is an effective method of decreasing the risk of CHD. Which food is most likely a source of trans fat?
- A. hot dogs
- B. whole milk
- C. fatty fish
- D. potato chips
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: potato chips. Potato chips, especially when fried in hydrogenated oils, are a common source of trans fats, which are linked to an increased risk of coronary heart disease (CHD). Hot dogs (choice A) can also contain trans fats if made with processed meats and added fats. Whole milk (choice B) and fatty fish (choice C) do not typically contain trans fats, making them less likely sources compared to potato chips.
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