Nursing Elites

1. Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?

• A. Decreased pupillary light response
• B. Increased GI motility
• C. Decreased short-term memory
• D. Increased cardiopulmonary rates

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.

2. A female patient is taking combined hormonal contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. She visits the gynecology clinic and is noted to have a blood pressure of 176/102 mm Hg. The patient is started on enalapril mesylate 10 mg. In collaboration with the primary care provider, what other patient teaching should be provided based on her current medication regimen?

• A. Instruct on a low-salt diet.
• B. Instruct to discontinue the contraceptives.
• C. Instruct on the use of relaxation techniques to decrease stress.
• D. Instruct on the rationale for increasing the contraceptive dose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Women on hormonal contraceptives and antihypertensives like enalapril should be counseled to adopt a low-salt diet if severe hypertension occurs. This dietary modification can help in managing blood pressure levels. Instructing to discontinue the contraceptives is crucial in cases of severe hypertension as it poses an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Instructing on relaxation techniques may have some benefits in reducing stress levels but addressing the root cause, such as discontinuing contraceptives in this scenario, is more critical. There is no rationale for increasing the contraceptive dose when hypertension is present; in fact, it should be stopped to prevent complications.

3. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?

• A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
• B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
• C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.

4. The registered nurse is teaching a class on inflammation and explains that which cell is the predominant phagocyte arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites?

• A. Macrophages
• B. Mast cells
• C. Monocytes
• D. Neutrophils

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neutrophils are the correct answer as they are the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites. Neutrophils are part of the body's innate immune system and are among the first responders to sites of inflammation or infection. They play a crucial role in engulfing and destroying pathogens. Macrophages, although important phagocytes, usually arrive later at the site. Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions and not primarily phagocytes. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and are not the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory sites.

5. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

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