Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
• C. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
• D. Apply the medication once a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Consistency in timing helps regulate the hormone levels in the body, ensuring the medication's optimal benefit. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid sun exposure with this medication. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting the healthcare provider may not be safe. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone acetate is typically taken orally and not applied topically once a week.

2. A patient with a history of cardiovascular disease is being prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse include in the patient education regarding the risks associated with HRT?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• D. HRT may decrease the risk of breast cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of certain conditions like venous thromboembolism, as mentioned in choice C. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT has been associated with a slight increase in the risk of breast cancer.

3. A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer pain relief medication.
• B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
• C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
• D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.

4. A 30-year-old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day. He has been on this regimen for 6 weeks. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of this medication can cause:

• A. adrenal crisis
• B. hypercortisolism
• C. ACTH stimulation
• D. thyroid crisis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to adrenal crisis. This occurs due to the suppression of the adrenal glands' natural cortisol production caused by prolonged exogenous steroid administration. Adrenal crisis presents with symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, abdominal pain, and hypotension. Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) results from chronic excessive exposure to cortisol, not abrupt withdrawal. ACTH stimulation would be expected in response to low cortisol levels, not as a direct consequence of prednisone withdrawal. Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm) is associated with severe hyperthyroidism and is not directly related to corticosteroid withdrawal.

5. During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as ______ atrophy.

• A. Physiologic
• B. Pathologic
• C. Disuse
• D. Neurogenic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Physiologic.' Physiologic atrophy is a normal part of development, like the reduction in thymus size during childhood. Pathologic atrophy (choice B) refers to tissue wasting due to disease, not a normal process like the reduction in thymus size. Disuse atrophy (choice C) results from a lack of physical activity or stimulation, which is not the case with thymus size reduction. Neurogenic atrophy (choice D) is caused by damage to or diseases of the nerves supplying the muscles, not related to the thymus size reduction seen in childhood.

Similar Questions