an adult patient is suspected of having an androgen deficiency and has spoken with his primary care provider about the possibility of treatment with t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.

2. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

3. A patient with a complex medical history is considering the use of oral contraceptives. The nurse should be aware that many antibiotics and antiseizure medications cause what effect when combined with oral contraceptives?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of pregnancy. Certain antibiotics and anticonvulsants can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing liver enzymes that metabolize the hormones more quickly. This interaction can lead to a decreased contraceptive effect, thereby increasing the risk of pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the effect of antibiotics and antiseizure medications on oral contraceptives.

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by simultaneous clotting and bleeding throughout the body. This imbalance in the body's clotting system leads to the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels, which can consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the characteristic feature of DIC, which involves both clotting and bleeding.

5. Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for a client with dementia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. For clients with dementia, following an established schedule for activities of daily living is appropriate as it helps maintain routine and structure, which can be beneficial for their condition. Choice A has been rephrased to align better with the context of dementia care. Choice A is incorrect as expecting a return to a previous level of self-functioning may not be realistic for clients with dementia. Choice B is not the most appropriate outcome criteria as handling anxiety, while important, may not be the primary focus when working with clients with dementia. Choice C, seeking out resources in the community for support, is also important but may not be as directly related to the day-to-day care and management of activities for a client with dementia.

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