ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. BPH
- C. Chronic renal failure
- D. Type 2 diabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.
2. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
- A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
- B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
- C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
- D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
3. Staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain. She has many comorbidities that require several prescription medications. The nurse knows that which factor is likely to complicate the clinician's assessment and treatment of the client's pain?
- A. Her advanced age may influence the expression and perception of pain.
- B. Her polypharmacy may complicate the pain management process.
- C. Her underlying conditions may mask or exacerbate the pain.
- D. Her cognitive function may decline, making pain assessment difficult.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polypharmacy, or the use of multiple medications, can complicate pain management due to drug interactions and side effects. While advanced age can influence pain perception, it is not the most likely factor to complicate assessment and treatment in this scenario. Underlying conditions may affect pain perception but do not directly complicate the management process. Cognitive decline can hinder pain assessment, but in this case, the focus is on factors directly impacting the treatment process, making option B the most appropriate choice.
4. A client is admitted with a suspected aortic dissection. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
- C. Administer intravenous fluids to maintain blood pressure.
- D. Monitor the client's urine output closely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening emergency that often necessitates immediate surgical intervention to prevent rupture and further complications. Administering antihypertensive medications (choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority over surgical intervention. While maintaining blood pressure with intravenous fluids (choice C) is important, the urgent need for surgery takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is essential for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this critical situation.
5. Which of the following findings is commonly associated with congestive heart failure?
- A. Decreased jugular venous pressure
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pulmonary edema is a common finding in congestive heart failure. In congestive heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs, causing pulmonary edema. This results in symptoms like shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Jugular venous pressure is often elevated, not decreased in heart failure. Hyperactive bowel sounds and weight loss are not specific findings for congestive heart failure.
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