an adult patient is suspected of having an androgen deficiency and has spoken with his primary care provider about the possibility of treatment with t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.

2. After sustaining a concussion, a client experiences headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness. What does this indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms are commonly associated with intracranial pressure elevation, which can be dangerous and requires immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome is characterized by severe pain and swelling in the affected limb, not the symptoms mentioned. Consuming too much food at once may lead to digestive issues but does not correlate with the symptoms described. Improved kidney function would not manifest through the symptoms mentioned after a concussion.

3. As you are walking in the park, a huge black Labrador runs up to you and places his paws on your shoulders. Immediately your heart starts racing, you feel palpitations, anxiety, and your hands become a little shaky. The nurse knows that this response is primarily caused by:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions like heart rate, respiration, and sweating. In the given scenario, the 'fight or flight' response is activated, leading to increased heart rate, palpitations, anxiety, and shaky hands. The cerebral cortex is involved in conscious thought processes and decision-making, not the immediate physiological response observed here. The somatic nervous system regulates voluntary movements, while the limbic system is responsible for emotions and memory, but the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for the physiological responses seen in this situation.

4. Which of the following tests is recommended for lung cancer screening?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Computed tomography (CT) scan. When screening for lung cancer, CT scans are recommended over chest X-rays due to their higher sensitivity in detecting lung nodules and early-stage cancers. Pulmonary function tests are not used for screening lung cancer but rather to assess lung function. Magnetic resonance imaging is not the preferred imaging modality for routine lung cancer screening, as CT scans are more commonly used.

5. Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.

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