during a clinical assessment of a 68 year old client who has suffered a head injury a neurologist suspects that a client has sustained damage to her v
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Nursing Elites

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Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.

2. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is experiencing a relapse. Which of the following factors is most likely contributing to the relapse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emotional stress can trigger a relapse in multiple sclerosis by exacerbating symptoms. While taking an over-the-counter multivitamin and getting a flu shot are generally safe, they are not typically known to trigger MS relapses. Engaging in strenuous physical activity, if done carefully, can actually have benefits for individuals with MS by improving strength and mobility, so it is less likely to be the cause of a relapse.

3. A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for patients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen). Chloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria. It works by killing the malaria parasite in the red blood cells. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial and parasitic infections, not malaria. Oprelvekin (Neumega) is a medication used to stimulate platelet production. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine) is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia. Therefore, Chloroquine phosphate is the appropriate medication for preventing malaria in this scenario.

4. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

5. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.

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