ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
- A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
- B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
- C. The client has an inability to smell.
- D. The client has impaired eye movement.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.
2. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:
- A. Leukemia
- B. Sideroblastic anemia
- C. Hemosiderosis
- D. Polycythemia vera
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.
3. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:
- A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
- B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
- C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
- D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.
4. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important information should the healthcare provider provide?
- A. This medication can cause sudden hearing loss.
- B. This medication should not be taken more than once a day.
- C. You should avoid taking this medication with high-fat meals.
- D. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sildenafil (Viagra) should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sudden hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect associated with sildenafil, not a common side effect. Choice B is not the most important information related to sildenafil use. While it is generally recommended not to exceed one dose per day, the interaction with nitrates is more critical. Choice C is also important to consider as high-fat meals can delay the onset of action of sildenafil, but it is not as crucial as avoiding nitrates.
5. The neurotransmitter GABA mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Therefore, when explaining this to a group of nursing students, the nurse will state:
- A. It takes at least three chemical substances (amino acids, neuropeptides, and monoamines) to stimulate any activity between the cells.
- B. There is a symbiotic relationship; therefore, the end result will be depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
- C. The combination of GABA with a receptor site is inhibitory since it causes the local nerve membrane to become hyperpolarized and less excitable.
- D. The neurotransmitters will interact with cholinergic receptors to bind to acetylcholine in order to produce hypopolarization within the cell.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When GABA binds with a receptor site, it causes hyperpolarization of the local nerve membrane, making it less excitable. This hyperpolarization leads to inhibition of nerve cell activity. Choice A is incorrect because GABA is a neurotransmitter itself and does not require three chemical substances to stimulate activity between cells. Choice B is incorrect as GABA triggers inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs), leading to hyperpolarization, not depolarization, of the postsynaptic membrane. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a process involving cholinergic receptors and acetylcholine, which is unrelated to GABA's mechanism of action.
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