during a clinical assessment of a 68 year old client who has suffered a head injury a neurologist suspects that a client has sustained damage to her v
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Nursing Elites

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Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.

2. Seizures are diagnosed by which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizures are most accurately diagnosed by EEG, which measures brain activity. Choice A is incorrect as ECG (electrocardiogram) measures heart activity, not brain activity. Choice B is incorrect as CBC (complete blood count) is a blood test and not used to diagnose seizures. Choice C is incorrect as an ECG (electrocardiogram) also measures heart activity, not brain activity, and is not the primary diagnostic tool for seizures.

3. A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections. When there is a breach in the skin like in this scenario, neutrophils are quickly recruited to the site of injury to phagocytize and kill bacteria. Eosinophils are primarily involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions, making choice A incorrect. Leukotrienes are lipid mediators involved in inflammation but are not cells, so choice C is incorrect. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and play a role in immune response, but they are not the first cells to arrive at the site of a bacterial infection, making choice D incorrect.

4. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

5. Which of the following characteristics is common in both malignant and benign tumors?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uncontrolled cell growth. This characteristic is common to both malignant and benign tumors. Benign tumors are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rapid growth, metastasis, and invasion of surrounding tissue are characteristics typically associated with malignant tumors.

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