which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

2. A client is experiencing mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients experiencing mild anxiety, a heightened perceptual field is a common finding. This means that the individual may be more alert and observant of their surroundings, sometimes to the point of being hyper-aware. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be associated with mild anxiety. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more commonly seen in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice C) may be observed in some cases of anxiety, but it is not a specific hallmark of mild anxiety. Purposeless activity (Choice D) is more indicative of severe anxiety or other mental health conditions.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while they are sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and provides support for the limb post-stroke. This positioning is important to maintain proper alignment and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing food on the left side of the mouth, providing total assistance with ADLs, and maintaining the client on bed rest do not directly address the specific needs related to unilateral paralysis and dysphagia post right hemispheric stroke.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

5. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

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