what is the first intervention for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. What is the initial intervention for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihistamines as the initial intervention for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction. Antihistamines work to block the effects of histamine, a substance released during an allergic reaction, helping to relieve symptoms such as itching, swelling, and hives. Corticosteroids (Choice B) are sometimes used in severe cases to reduce inflammation, but they are not the first-line treatment for an allergic reaction. Administering oxygen (Choice C) may be necessary if the patient is having difficulty breathing, but it is not the first intervention. IV fluids (Choice D) are typically given for conditions like dehydration or shock, not as the primary intervention for an allergic reaction.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

3. A client is 2 days postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication following hip replacement surgery. It is crucial to report this finding promptly for further evaluation and intervention. The other options, heart rates of 88/min and 96/min, are within normal limits for an adult and may not require immediate reporting. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning for decreased kidney perfusion, but the priority in this case is the potential DVT due to its severe implications.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.

5. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

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