a nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube which of the following interventions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client has a chest tube. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the chest tube drainage system below the client's chest level is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a tension pneumothorax, stripping the chest tube is an outdated practice that can cause damage to the tissues, and keeping the collection device at the level of the client's chest can impede proper drainage and lead to fluid accumulation.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube is to check for tube placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the NG tube is correctly positioned in the stomach and not in the respiratory tract, reducing the risk of aspiration. Flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride, administering the medications as a bolus, or dissolving the medications in sterile water should only be done after confirming the proper placement of the NG tube. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they precede the essential step of verifying tube placement.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.

4. A client post-thyroidectomy reports tingling in their lips and fingers. The nurse should identify this finding as an indication of which of the following complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tingling in the lips and fingers is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur as a complication following a thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) presents with muscle weakness and cardiac issues, not tingling. Hyponatremia (Choice C) typically manifests with confusion, seizures, and muscle cramps. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is associated with increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue.

5. A nurse working in a rehabilitation facility is developing a discharge plan for a client who has left-sided hemiplegia. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ensure that the client has a referral for physical therapy.' For a client with left-sided hemiplegia, physical therapy is crucial in restoring function and mobility. It is the nurse's priority to ensure the client receives the necessary rehabilitation services. Consulting with a case manager about insurance coverage (Choice A) is important but not the priority at this stage. Counseling caregivers on respite care options (Choice B) and referring the client to a local stroke support group (Choice D) are also valuable but not as essential as ensuring the client has access to physical therapy for rehabilitation.

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