ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with orange juice to increase absorption.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication with milk if it causes stomach upset.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. Orange juice is recommended because of its vitamin C content, which aids in the absorption of iron. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is better absorbed with food. Choice C, taking the medication with milk if it causes stomach upset, is incorrect as calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D, taking the medication at bedtime, is incorrect as it is usually recommended to take iron supplements between meals or with food to enhance absorption.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. INR
- C. Platelet count
- D. Potassium levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before administering enoxaparin, it is essential to review potassium levels to monitor for potential imbalances. Enoxaparin, a type of anticoagulant, does not directly affect PT, INR, or platelet count. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. PT and INR are typically used to monitor warfarin therapy, while platelet count is essential for assessing clotting function but is not directly related to enoxaparin administration.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 58/min
- B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours
- C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Chest tube drainage of 60 mL/hr
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Chest tube drainage of 120 mL/hr
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest tube drainage of more than 100 mL/hr may indicate active bleeding, which is a serious complication post-thoracotomy surgery. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client 2 hours post-thoracotomy and do not require immediate reporting. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for an adult.
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