ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with orange juice to increase absorption.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication with milk if it causes stomach upset.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. Orange juice is recommended because of its vitamin C content, which aids in the absorption of iron. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is better absorbed with food. Choice C, taking the medication with milk if it causes stomach upset, is incorrect as calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D, taking the medication at bedtime, is incorrect as it is usually recommended to take iron supplements between meals or with food to enhance absorption.
2. When caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, what is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Expel any air bubbles at the top of the prefilled syringe
- B. Massage the injection site to evenly distribute the medication
- C. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall
- D. Administer an NSAID for injection site discomfort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, the nurse should inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall. This site is preferred for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin to reduce the risk of bleeding or injury. Expelling air bubbles, massaging the injection site, or administering an NSAID for discomfort are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications or ineffective medication delivery.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
- B. The client develops hiccups.
- C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
- D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Baked chicken
- B. Grilled salmon
- C. Steamed broccoli
- D. Fried foods
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with chronic pancreatitis should avoid fried foods because they are high in fat, which can exacerbate symptoms and lead to further complications. Baked chicken (choice A), grilled salmon (choice B), and steamed broccoli (choice C) are generally healthier options and can be included in a low-fat diet suitable for individuals with chronic pancreatitis.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
- A. Bilirubin.
- B. Albumin.
- C. Ammonia.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
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