Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
• B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
• C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
• D. Swallow the tablet with water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain persists after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Choice A is correct because taking one tablet at the onset of chest pain helps to relieve symptoms by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest taking multiple tablets without waiting for the initial dose to take effect, which can lead to hypotension and other adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed but instead placed under the tongue for rapid absorption.

2. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is experiencing muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers by increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, thereby helping to restore muscle strength. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, not neuromuscular blockade. Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not to reverse neuromuscular blockade. Vecuronium is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, like the one the client received, and is not used to reverse its effects.

3. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.
• B. Lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation.
• D. Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce if having difficulty swallowing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Alendronate with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. This helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation, as the medication can cause irritation if not taken correctly. Taking it before bedtime (choice C) can increase the risk of irritation as the individual lies down. Lying down after taking the medication (choice B) can also lead to esophageal irritation. Crushing the tablet (choice D) is not recommended as Alendronate should be taken whole with a full glass of water.

4. What finding should a nurse monitor for as an adverse effect when a client has a new prescription for Spironolactone?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can be dangerous, causing muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial when a client is on Spironolactone. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is incorrect because Spironolactone does not typically affect blood glucose levels. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hyponatremia (choice D) are also incorrect as Spironolactone's primary impact is on potassium levels.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
• B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 min.
• C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
• D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hr of manifestation onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when administering IV Alteplase is to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This helps prevent bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy. Administering IM Enoxaparin is not indicated with Alteplase, as it is an anticoagulant rather than a thrombolytic agent. Aminocaproic acid is not typically administered prior to alteplase infusion in the context of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. While timely administration of Alteplase is important, the specific timeframe within which it should be administered may vary based on the clinical situation, so a strict 8-hour window is not universally applicable.

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