which hospital client is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome ii crps ii
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Nursing Elites

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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.

2. A female patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) can cause breakthrough bleeding or spotting, which is a common side effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased risk of diabetes, and increased risk of breast cancer are not commonly associated side effects of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the patient about the potential for breakthrough bleeding or spotting.

3. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

4. A patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin B. What is the expected length of treatment for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '4 to 12 weeks.' Amphotericin B treatment duration for severe fungal infections typically ranges from 4 to 12 weeks. This extended period is necessary to ensure complete eradication of the fungal infection and prevent relapse. Choices A, B, and D provide durations that are either too short or too long for treating severe fungal infections effectively, making them incorrect.

5. Which of the following factors are known to contribute to an individual's ability to adapt to stress? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct factors that contribute to an individual's ability to adapt to stress are age, socioeconomic status, and gender. Age can influence coping mechanisms and resilience. Socioeconomic status can impact access to resources and support systems. Gender differences can also play a role in how individuals experience and manage stress. Ethnicity, while important in other contexts, is not directly mentioned in the provided rationale and is not one of the factors listed as contributing to an individual's ability to adapt to stress.

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