a 60 year old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism which of the following adverse effects should the nurse mon
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.

2. When caring for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the disease the nurse is dealing with is an example of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse is dealing with an autoimmune disease. In autoimmune diseases like SLE, the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues. Choice A, 'Autoimmunity,' is the correct answer because SLE is an example of the immune system attacking self-antigens, leading to tissue damage and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Alloimmunity refers to the immune response against foreign antigens from members of the same species, homoimmunity is not a recognized term in immunology, and alleimmunity is not a valid term in this context.

3. A patient is being treated with raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent bone loss. It should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, not on an empty stomach. Choices A and B are incorrect because raloxifene is indeed a SERM that prevents bone loss, but it does not directly work by increasing bone formation or decreasing bone resorption. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common side effects of raloxifene.

4. What is responsible for initiating clonal selection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Antigens are the correct answer as they are the molecules that trigger the immune response by binding to specific B or T cells. This binding activates these cells, leading to their proliferation and differentiation to fight off the antigen. B cells and T cells are the responders to antigens, not the initiators of clonal selection. Lymphocytes is a broad term encompassing both B and T cells, so it is not the specific factor responsible for initiating clonal selection.

5. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

Similar Questions

Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?
The registered nurse is teaching a class on inflammation and explains that which cell is the predominant phagocyte arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites?
A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?
A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:
Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses