ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Nephrotoxicity
- C. Cardiotoxicity
- D. Pulmonary toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.
2. A patient is receiving oral nystatin suspension for a fungal infection of the mouth. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to be experienced with this form of nystatin?
- A. Local irritation
- B. Burning
- C. Nausea
- D. Urinary urgency
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Local irritation. When using oral nystatin suspension for a fungal infection of the mouth, local irritation is the most likely adverse effect that a patient may experience. Nystatin is generally well-tolerated, but some patients may develop local irritation, such as mouth or throat irritation. Choices B, C, and D are less likely adverse effects of oral nystatin suspension. Burning, nausea, and urinary urgency are not commonly associated with nystatin use for a fungal infection of the mouth.
3. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?
- A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
- B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
- C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
- D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.
4. A patient is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. She is prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). What effect will this medication provide in the treatment of ischemic heart disease?
- A. Increase platelets
- B. Decrease platelets
- C. Promote angiogenesis
- D. Prevent thrombus formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication that promotes the growth of white blood cells. In the context of ischemic heart disease, promoting angiogenesis, the formation of new blood vessels, can improve blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing ischemia and potentially improving cardiac function. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choices A and B are incorrect because filgrastim does not directly affect platelet levels. Choice D is also incorrect as filgrastim does not prevent thrombus formation.
5. A client on an acute medicine unit of a hospital with a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction is reporting intense, diffuse pain in her abdomen. Which physiologic phenomenon is most likely contributing to her complaint?
- A. Somatic pain resulting from pressure on the parietal peritoneum
- B. Referred pain from her small bowel
- C. Visceral pain resulting from distension and ischemia
- D. Neuropathic pain resulting from autonomic dysfunction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Visceral pain is associated with distension, ischemia, and inflammation of internal organs. In the case of a small bowel obstruction, the intense, diffuse pain reported by the client is likely due to the distension and ischemia of the small bowel. Somatic pain (Choice A) would be more localized and sharp, typically arising from the parietal peritoneum. Referred pain (Choice B) is pain perceived at a site distant from the actual pathology. Neuropathic pain (Choice D) involves dysfunction or damage to the nervous system and is not typically associated with the described physiologic phenomenon of distension and ischemia in the context of a small bowel obstruction.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access