Nursing Elites

1. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?

• A. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms
• B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction
• C. Improvement in erectile function
• D. Relief of pain associated with BPH

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.

2. A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer pain relief medication.
• B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
• C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
• D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.

3. A man with gout has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

• A. asymptomatic
• B. acute flare
• C. the intercritical period
• D. chronic gout

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'chronic gout.' Chronic gout is characterized by the presence of tophi, which are large, hard nodules that can develop around joints like toes and elbows. These tophi are a sign of longstanding, untreated gout. Choice A, 'asymptomatic,' is incorrect as the presence of tophi indicates a symptomatic phase. Choice B, 'acute flare,' is incorrect as acute flares are characterized by sudden and severe pain, inflammation, and redness in the joints, not the development of tophi. Choice C, 'the intercritical period,' is also incorrect as this phase occurs between acute attacks and is typically asymptomatic, without the presence of tophi.

4. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

5. A patient is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for anemia. Which of the following adjunctive therapies is imperative with epoetin alfa?

• A. Potassium supplements
• B. Sodium restriction
• C. Iron supplement
• D. Renal dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron supplement. When a patient is receiving epoetin alfa for anemia, it is imperative to provide iron supplementation as epoetin alfa works by stimulating the production of red blood cells, which require iron for hemoglobin synthesis. Therefore, iron supplementation is crucial to support the increased erythropoiesis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium supplements, sodium restriction, and renal dialysis are not typically indicated as adjunctive therapies with epoetin alfa for anemia.

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