ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?
- A. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms
- B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction
- C. Improvement in erectile function
- D. Relief of pain associated with BPH
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the provider expect? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Flashbacks
- B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
- C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
- D. Manic episodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by various symptoms, including flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal, and hypervigilance. Additionally, individuals with PTSD often experience negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes, which are periods of abnormally elevated mood and energy, are not typically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Manic episodes.' Choices A, B, and C are all common findings in individuals with PTSD.
3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure weekly.
- C. Notify your provider if you develop a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid using salt substitutes to prevent hyperkalemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients prescribed with Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, are at risk of developing a persistent cough as a common adverse effect. It is essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider promptly if this side effect occurs to evaluate the need for a medication change or adjustment.
4. Which action is an example of secondary prevention in public health?
- A. Administering vaccines to prevent disease
- B. Providing treatment for chronic diseases
- C. Screening for early signs of disease
- D. Offering health education workshops
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is screening for early signs of disease (Choice C). Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and treatment of diseases to prevent their progression. By screening for early signs of disease, individuals can receive timely interventions, leading to better health outcomes. Administering vaccines (Choice A) falls under primary prevention by preventing the occurrence of diseases. Providing treatment for chronic diseases (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, which focuses on managing and reducing complications of established diseases. Offering health education workshops (Choice D) can be part of primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.
5. When the nurse interviews an adolescent, which is especially important?
- A. Focus the discussion on the peer group
- B. Allow an opportunity to express feelings
- C. Use the same type of language as the adolescent
- D. Emphasize that confidentiality will always be maintained
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allowing adolescents to express their feelings helps them feel heard and supported, which is crucial for effective communication.
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