Nursing Elites

1. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?

• A. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms
• B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction
• C. Improvement in erectile function
• D. Relief of pain associated with BPH

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.

2. A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:

• A. Immunodeficiency
• B. Autoimmunity
• C. Anaphylaxis
• D. Tissue-specific hypersensitivity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe, immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE. In this scenario, the symptoms of itching, pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties following a bee sting are indicative of anaphylaxis. Choice A, Immunodeficiency, refers to a weakened immune system's inability to protect the body from infections and diseases, which is not the case here. Choice B, Autoimmunity, involves the immune system attacking healthy cells and tissues by mistake, which is not the mechanism at play in anaphylaxis. Choice D, Tissue-specific hypersensitivity, does not accurately describe the immediate, systemic reaction seen in anaphylaxis.

3. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Right lower quadrant cramping
• B. Severe bloody diarrhea
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mostly affects the rectum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.

4. The nurse is closely following a patient who began treatment with testosterone several months earlier. When assessing the patient for potential adverse effects of treatment, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

• A. Skin inspection for developing lesions
• B. Lung function testing
• C. Assessment of serum calcium levels
• D. Assessment of arterial blood gases

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients receiving testosterone therapy, the nurse should prioritize assessing serum calcium levels. Testosterone therapy can lead to hypercalcemia, making the evaluation of serum calcium levels crucial. Skin inspection for developing lesions, lung function testing, and arterial blood gas assessment are not the priority assessments for potential adverse effects of testosterone therapy. Skin inspection may be relevant for dermatological side effects, lung function testing and arterial blood gas assessment are not directly related to the common side effects of testosterone therapy.

5. A 9-year-old girl has a diffuse collection of symptoms that are indicative of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control. She also suffers from persistent fluid and electrolyte imbalances. On which aspect of the nervous system listed below would her health care providers focus their diagnostic efforts?

• A. The thalamus
• B. The pituitary
• C. The hypothalamus
• D. The midbrain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating endocrine and autonomic functions, including fluid and electrolyte balance. In this case, the girl's symptoms of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control, along with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, point towards dysfunction in the hypothalamus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thalamus is mainly involved in sensory relay, the pituitary gland regulates various hormones but is controlled by the hypothalamus, and the midbrain is responsible for motor control and arousal, not endocrine or autonomic functions.

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