Nursing Elites

1. Which food items should be avoided by a child with lactose intolerance?

• A. Popcorn, seeds, and any foods containing nuts.
• B. Milk, cheese, ice cream, and puddings.
• C. Wheat, rye, barley, and commercially baked goods.
• D. Eggs, ham, bacon, and canned meats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk, cheese, ice cream, and puddings should be avoided by a child with lactose intolerance because they contain lactose, which the child's body may have difficulty digesting. Option A is incorrect as popcorn, seeds, and foods containing nuts do not typically contain lactose. Option C lists wheat, rye, barley, and commercially baked goods, which are sources of gluten, not lactose. Option D includes eggs, ham, bacon, and canned meats, which are also not sources of lactose. Therefore, B is the most appropriate choice for a child with lactose intolerance.

2. How would protein deficiency likely affect dental tissues?

• A. Decreased resistance to dental caries
• B. Increased tooth size
• C. Delayed tooth development
• D. Increased enamel mineralization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protein deficiency can lead to delayed tooth development as the body may not have enough resources to form teeth properly. This delay can make the teeth more susceptible to dental issues due to incomplete formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Decreased resistance to dental caries is more related to factors like poor oral hygiene and sugary diets, increased tooth size is not a common effect of protein deficiency on dental tissues, and increased enamel mineralization is not typically associated with protein deficiency.

3. After ileostomy, which of the following condition is NOT expected?

• A. Increased weight
• B. Irritation of skin around the stoma
• C. Liquid stool
• D. Establishment of regular bowel movement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

4. A client who is in her second trimester of pregnancy should increase her caloric intake by how many calories during this trimester?

• A. 110 cal/day
• B. 225 cal/day
• C. 340 cal/day
• D. 450 cal/day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the second trimester of pregnancy, it is recommended that a client increases their caloric intake by around 340 calories per day to support the growing needs of both the mother and the developing fetus. This additional intake helps ensure the proper nutrition and energy levels required during this crucial stage of pregnancy. Option A (110 cal/day) is too low to meet the increased demands. Option B (225 cal/day) is also below the recommended amount. Option D (450 cal/day) is higher than necessary and could lead to excessive weight gain, which is not ideal during pregnancy.

5. The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client. Which statement made by the client is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. "I notice when I take a vitamin E supplement, I bruise more easily."
• B. "I work nights and rarely go outside during the day."
• C. "I take warfarin, so I need to limit the amount of green leafy vegetables I eat."
• D. "My vitamin supplement has the recommended daily allowance of vitamin A."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Excessive intake of vitamin E can increase the risk of bleeding as it acts as a blood thinner. Bruising easily may indicate too much vitamin E. Choice B is not as concerning as it describes a lifestyle that may lead to vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Choice C shows awareness of the interaction between warfarin and vitamin K, which is expected. Choice D indicates knowledge of the vitamin A content in the supplement, which is not a cause for concern.

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