Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. INR 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Chest tube drainage of 60 mL/hr
• B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• C. Chest tube drainage of 120 mL/hr
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest tube drainage of more than 100 mL/hr may indicate active bleeding, which is a serious complication post-thoracotomy surgery. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client 2 hours post-thoracotomy and do not require immediate reporting. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for an adult.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?

• A. Tomato soup
• B. Apple juice
• C. Chicken broth
• D. Cranberry juice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take my pulse before taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• C. I will take this medication if my heart rate is less than 60/min.
• D. I should take this medication with food if I am not feeling well.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking the pulse before taking digoxin is crucial as it helps monitor the heart rate, as digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect. Option B is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C is incorrect because digoxin should be held and the healthcare provider should be contacted if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with food due to decreased absorption.

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