which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.

3. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.

4. A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been receiving lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The nurse notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering the medication is appropriate for a stable lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. A level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for lithium, indicating that the client is receiving an adequate dose to maintain therapeutic effects. Withholding the next dose, increasing the dosage, or discontinuing the medication would not be indicated at this lithium level as it is within the desired range for therapeutic benefit. Therefore, the correct action would be to continue administering the medication to ensure the client maintains the therapeutic level of lithium.

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