which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A client with multiple sclerosis and dysphagia requires care. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, especially those with multiple sclerosis, thin liquids can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids are recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration and help with swallowing difficulties. Positioning the client supine with the head of the bed flat can further increase the risk of aspiration. Having the client tuck their chin while swallowing is a strategy used for some types of dysphagia but not specifically for multiple sclerosis-related dysphagia. Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth does not address the swallowing difficulties associated with dysphagia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for iron supplements. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client understands the teaching about iron supplements, they should know that black, tarry stools are a normal side effect. This indicates that the medication is being absorbed and working effectively. Choices A and B are incorrect because iron supplements should not be taken with milk or orange juice, as these can interfere with the absorption of iron. Choice D is also incorrect because iron supplements are usually best absorbed on an empty stomach, so taking them before bedtime may not be ideal.

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