Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?

• A. Hematemesis.
• B. Melena.
• C. Pallor.
• D. Steatorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.

2. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Administer the feeding at room temperature.
• D. Flush the feeding tube with 20 mL of water every 8 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about food choices to increase iron intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Eggs
• B. Carrots
• C. White bread
• D. Spinach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Spinach is an excellent choice to recommend as it is rich in non-heme iron, which can help improve iron levels in clients with iron deficiency anemia. Eggs (Choice A) are a good source of protein but do not contain as much iron as spinach. Carrots (Choice B) are rich in vitamin A but are not a significant source of iron. White bread (Choice C) is not a good source of iron compared to spinach.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
• B. I will increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients taking warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication.

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