a nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease gerd which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.

3. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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