ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?
- A. Hematemesis.
- B. Melena.
- C. Pallor.
- D. Steatorrhea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.
2. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?
- A. Monitor INR levels
- B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.
3. What is the appropriate intervention when a patient experiences a fall?
- A. Assess for injuries
- B. Call for help
- C. Document the fall
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate intervention when a patient experiences a fall is to assess for injuries. This immediate action helps in identifying any harm or complications resulting from the fall, allowing for timely intervention. Calling for help may be necessary after assessing the injuries, but the priority is to evaluate the patient's condition. Documenting the fall is important for record-keeping purposes but should come after ensuring the patient's safety. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done once the assessment has been completed and any necessary initial interventions have been initiated.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased muscle strength.
- C. Diarrhea.
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.
5. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Elevate the client's legs when in bed.
- D. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.
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