ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
- C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
- D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Abdominal distention
- B. Burning sensation in the chest
- C. Constipation
- D. Frequent belching
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Burning sensation in the chest. A burning sensation in the chest is a classic symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Abdominal distention (Choice A) is not typically associated with GERD; it is more commonly seen in conditions like bowel obstruction. Constipation (Choice C) is not a hallmark symptom of GERD, as it is more related to gastrointestinal motility issues. Frequent belching (Choice D) can occur with GERD, but it is not as specific or characteristic as the burning sensation in the chest.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Consume foods high in bran fiber.
- B. Increase intake of milk products.
- C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
- D. Increase intake of foods high in gluten.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps alleviate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome by promoting regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who are lactose intolerant. Choice C is incorrect as fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high fructose content, which can be poorly absorbed in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as increasing foods high in gluten may be problematic for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who have gluten sensitivity or celiac disease.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Positive Trousseau's sign
- B. Increased deep tendon reflexes
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Weak, thready pulse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A positive Trousseau's sign is a key finding in clients with hypocalcemia, indicating neuromuscular irritability. The other choices are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypercalcemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in hyperactive bowel conditions or diarrhea, not specifically related to hypocalcemia. A weak, thready pulse may indicate cardiovascular issues, such as dehydration, but it is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This insulin has a peak effect of 2 to 4 hours.
- B. This insulin has a duration of action of 24 hours.
- C. This insulin is given before meals to control your blood sugar.
- D. You should avoid eating 30 minutes before or after taking this insulin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Insulin glargine has a 24-hour duration of action, making it suitable for once-daily dosing for long-term blood sugar control. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect in its action profile. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine is usually given at the same time each day regardless of meals. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before or after taking insulin glargine.
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