ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields.
- B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
- C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
- D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a client with a pulmonary embolism, improvement in anxiety levels can indicate the effectiveness of treatment as it suggests better oxygenation and perfusion. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate worsening of the condition, diminished breath sounds suggest impaired lung function, and ABG results with a pH of 7.48, PaO2 of 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 47 mm Hg do not specifically indicate treatment effectiveness for a pulmonary embolism.
2. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Critical pathways have unlimited timeframes for completion.
- B. Critical pathways are designed to decrease health care costs.
- C. Patients follow the critical pathway if variances occur.
- D. Budgets are used to create the critical pathway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Take this medication 1 hour before meals.
- C. Avoid potassium supplements while taking this medication.
- D. You may experience a persistent, dry cough while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Atenolol
- C. Naltrexone
- D. Methadone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.
5. A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. FHR baseline of 170/min.
- C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
- D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.
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