ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client supine.
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
- C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
- D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pneumothorax and is being treated with a chest tube. Which of the following findings indicates that the lung has re-expanded?
- A. There is no fluctuation in the water seal chamber.
- B. There is continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. There is tidaling in the water seal chamber.
- D. The drainage system is positioned at the level of the client's chest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is no fluctuation in the water seal chamber.' In a client with a pneumothorax being treated with a chest tube, the absence of fluctuation in the water seal chamber indicates that the lung has re-expanded. This finding suggests that there is no air leak from the lung into the pleural space. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber or tidaling in the water seal chamber would suggest ongoing air leakage, indicating that the lung has not fully re-expanded. Choice D is also incorrect as the position of the drainage system does not directly indicate lung re-expansion.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?
- A. INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Provide information about stress management.
- B. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
- C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Providing information about stress management is essential when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease because stress can trigger episodes. Stress management techniques can help the client avoid triggers and reduce the frequency of episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, helps prevent vasoconstriction and can be beneficial for clients with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease; it is more commonly used for severe allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect because glucocorticoid steroids are not typically used in the management of Raynaud's disease.
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