Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

• A. Consume food high in bran fiber.
• B. Increase intake of milk products.
• C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
• D. Increase foods high in gluten.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome is to consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and can help reduce symptoms of IBS. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup, and consuming foods high in gluten can exacerbate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in some individuals.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a thoracentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 96%
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tracheal deviation is the correct finding to report to the provider. It can indicate a pneumothorax, which is a serious complication following a thoracentesis that requires immediate attention. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate issue. A pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and may not be related to a serious complication. A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is slightly elevated but not a priority over tracheal deviation in this context.

3. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT levels
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor INR levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• B. Assist the client to the left Sims' position
• C. Insert the enema tubing 2.5 cm (1 in) into the rectum
• D. Lubricate the tip of the enema tubing with petroleum jelly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to the left Sims' position when administering an enema. This position helps facilitate the flow of the enema solution into the rectum. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema. Inserting the enema tubing 2.5 cm (1 in) into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as it should be inserted 7.5-10 cm (3-4 in) for an adult. Lubricating the tip of the enema tubing with petroleum jelly (Choice D) is a correct step to ease insertion but is not the most critical action among the choices provided.

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