Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 2 hours postoperative following a kidney biopsy is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• B. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
• D. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range and should be reported following a kidney biopsy to check for bleeding. Decreased hemoglobin levels could indicate internal bleeding, which is a significant concern postoperatively. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is also within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. A respiratory rate of 16/min and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are both normal findings postoperatively.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

3. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Take this medication with a calcium supplement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption. Calcium supplements should also be avoided when taking levothyroxine as they can reduce its absorption.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

Similar Questions