a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.

2. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 wks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this situation is whether they have any active lesions due to the history of herpes simplex virus. This is crucial to assess the risk of transmission to the newborn during labor. Option A is not the priority in this case as the focus is on the client's history of herpes simplex virus. Option B is important but does not directly relate to the risk of herpes simplex virus transmission. Option D is unrelated to the client's condition and the current situation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a colostomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A dry, purple stoma is abnormal and may indicate compromised blood flow, which should be reported to the provider. A red and moist stoma is a normal finding postoperatively. Purulent drainage from the stoma indicates infection and should also be reported. Mild swelling around the stoma is common in the early postoperative period and does not typically require immediate reporting.

5. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

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