ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
1. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate upon assessment for a preschool-age child with a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
- A. Headache, hematuria, and vertigo
- B. Foul-smelling urine, elevated blood pressure (BP), and hematuria
- C. Urgency, dysuria, and fever
- D. Severe flank pain, nausea, and headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preschool-age children with a urinary tract infection commonly present with urgency (feeling the need to urinate urgently), dysuria (painful urination), and fever. These symptoms are indicative of a UTI in this age group and should prompt further assessment and intervention by the nurse. Choice A is incorrect because headache and vertigo are not typical symptoms of UTI in preschool-age children. Choice B is incorrect because while foul-smelling urine and hematuria can be present in UTI, elevated blood pressure is not a common finding in this condition. Choice D is incorrect as severe flank pain and nausea are not typical manifestations of UTI in preschool-age children.
2. A pediatric client is admitted to the emergency department with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) that caused a loss of consciousness. The last set of vital signs showed heart rate 48, blood pressure (BP) 148/74 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 and irregular. What does the nurse suspect based on these data?
- A. Spinal cord injury
- B. Increased intracranial pressure
- C. Typical for sleep
- D. Improvement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The vital signs of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations indicate increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia (heart rate of 48), hypertension (blood pressure of 148/74 mmHg), and irregular respirations are typical signs of increased intracranial pressure in a pediatric client with a traumatic brain injury and loss of consciousness.
3. A patient taking isotretinoin (Accutane) for acne vulgaris. Which statement indicates that the patient teaching has been effective?
- A. I should use a reliable form of birth control.
- B. I will stop taking the drug if my skin is dry.
- C. It is important to increase intake of vitamin A.
- D. I do not need to use sunblock while taking Accutane.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic, which means it can cause birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for patients, especially females of childbearing potential, to use effective forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while taking this medication. This is a key component of patient teaching to ensure the safe use of isotretinoin. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing isotretinoin abruptly can lead to a flare-up of acne. Choice C is incorrect because increasing vitamin A intake can be harmful due to the risk of hypervitaminosis A. Choice D is incorrect because isotretinoin makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, so sunblock is essential to prevent sunburn and skin damage.
4. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?
- A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
- B. RR of 26 breaths/min
- C. Temp of 38°C
- D. BP of 70/50
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.
5. A young child admitted to the pediatric unit has fever, irritability, and vomiting with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) result should the nurse anticipate based on these data?
- A. Decreased protein count
- B. Clear, straw-colored fluid
- C. Positive for red blood cells (RBCs)
- D. Decreased glucose level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In bacterial meningitis, the glucose level in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is typically decreased due to the increased utilization of glucose by the infecting bacteria. This metabolic change leads to a decrease in CSF glucose levels, making choice D the correct answer in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bacterial meningitis usually results in an increased protein count, cloudy appearance of the CSF due to the presence of bacteria, and absence of red blood cells (RBCs) in the CSF unless there is a traumatic tap, respectively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access