ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. When should Montelukast be taken?
- A. At least two hours before exercise
- B. Daily in the evening
- C. Two hours before exercise or daily in the evening
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening to effectively manage asthma symptoms. Taking it at the same time each day helps maintain a consistent level of the medication in the body, providing optimal control over asthma symptoms and inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because Montelukast should not be taken specifically before exercise, but rather daily. Choice C is incorrect because although taking Montelukast two hours before exercise is not necessary, taking it daily in the evening is essential for its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as Montelukast should be taken daily to manage asthma.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
- B. Change the IV infusion site.
- C. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
- D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.
3. A client who is withdrawing from alcohol has been prescribed Propranolol. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
- B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
- C. Decreases cravings.
- D. Results in mild hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct information the nurse should include in the teaching is that Propranolol decreases cravings for alcohol. Propranolol is used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce the desire for alcohol. Choice A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase the risk for seizure activity; it can actually be used to prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures. Choice B is also incorrect as Propranolol does not provide aversion therapy. Choice D is incorrect as Propranolol is not known to result in mild hypertension.
4. When educating a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, which manifestation should the nurse instruct the client to report as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dry cough
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril. This cough can be bothersome and may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to explore potential alternatives or adjustments to the treatment plan. Tremors, drowsiness, and hyperactivity are not commonly associated with enalapril and are less likely to be attributed to this medication.
5. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?
- A. Antidiuretics
- B. Diuretics
- C. Anticonvulsants
- D. Antidotes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.
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