ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. When should Montelukast be taken?
- A. At least two hours before exercise
- B. Daily in the evening
- C. Two hours before exercise or daily in the evening
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening to effectively manage asthma symptoms. Taking it at the same time each day helps maintain a consistent level of the medication in the body, providing optimal control over asthma symptoms and inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because Montelukast should not be taken specifically before exercise, but rather daily. Choice C is incorrect because although taking Montelukast two hours before exercise is not necessary, taking it daily in the evening is essential for its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as Montelukast should be taken daily to manage asthma.
2. A client has a prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Expect your urine to turn orange.
- D. Avoid prolonged sunlight exposure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased excretion of potassium in the urine. To counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance, the client should be advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. This instruction helps prevent potential complications associated with low potassium levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide in the morning does not affect its effectiveness; urine turning orange is not an expected side effect of Furosemide; and avoiding prolonged sunlight exposure is not directly related to Furosemide use.
3. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
- B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
- C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
- D. Respiratory rate of 22/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Potassium level
- B. INR
- C. BUN
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.
5. A client has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The client should be informed that which of the following laboratory tests need to be completed periodically? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Thrombocyte count.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Amylase.
- D. Liver function tests.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Valproic acid can lead to thrombocytopenia, making it essential to monitor the client's thrombocyte count periodically. Additionally, valproic acid can cause pancreatitis, necessitating the monitoring of amylase levels. Furthermore, valproic acid carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, requiring regular monitoring of liver function tests.
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