Nursing Elites

1. When should Montelukast be taken?

• A. At least two hours before exercise
• B. Daily in the evening
• C. Two hours before exercise or daily in the evening
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening to effectively manage asthma symptoms. Taking it at the same time each day helps maintain a consistent level of the medication in the body, providing optimal control over asthma symptoms and inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because Montelukast should not be taken specifically before exercise, but rather daily. Choice C is incorrect because although taking Montelukast two hours before exercise is not necessary, taking it daily in the evening is essential for its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as Montelukast should be taken daily to manage asthma.

2. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Expect to feel drowsy.
• B. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
• C. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
• D. Avoid foods high in fat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to expect to feel drowsy. Clonidine is known to cause drowsiness, especially at the beginning of treatment. It is important for clients to be cautious with activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase high-potassium foods with Clonidine. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice can interact with many medications but is not a typical instruction for Clonidine. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific indication to avoid foods high in fat with Clonidine.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
• B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

5. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

• A. Cefaclor
• B. Cefazolin
• C. Cefepime
• D. Cephalexin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

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