ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
- B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.
2. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.
3. A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
- C. Discontinue the medication if diarrhea occurs.
- D. Expect to have increased appetite while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.
4. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim, and a nurse is providing teaching on monitoring adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bone pain
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone pain. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for bone pain since it is a common adverse effect of filgrastim. This occurs due to increased bone marrow activity stimulated by the medication.
5. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin to treat angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication only when chest pain occurs.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- D. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to apply the Nitroglycerin patch to a different site each time. This is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. Rotating application sites is important as it helps maintain the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of skin reactions. Choice A is incorrect because Nitroglycerin is often used prophylactically to prevent angina episodes rather than just for acute chest pain. Choice B is not relevant to the administration or effectiveness of the medication. Choice D, while generally a good recommendation, is not directly related to the administration of Nitroglycerin.
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