a nurse is caring for a client who is taking furosemide for heart failure which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

2. A client with heart failure is being instructed on laxative use. Which of the following laxatives should the client avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium phosphate. Clients with heart failure often follow a sodium-restricted diet. Sodium phosphate laxatives can lead to sodium absorption, causing fluid retention, which is contraindicated in heart failure. It is crucial to avoid sodium phosphate laxatives in these clients to prevent exacerbation of fluid overload and heart failure symptoms. Psyllium (choice B), Bisacodyl (choice C), and Polyethylene glycol (choice D) are not contraindicated in clients with heart failure and can be used safely for bowel management.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Lithium, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining a consistent sodium intake is crucial when taking Lithium to help regulate lithium levels in the body and prevent toxicity. Sodium levels can impact the effectiveness and safety of Lithium therapy. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day (Choice A) is not appropriate and could lead to dehydration. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice C) may vary depending on the individual's schedule but is not a critical instruction. Expecting to have frequent headaches (Choice D) is not a common side effect of Lithium.

4. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.

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