a nurse is caring for a client who is taking furosemide for heart failure which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client about the adverse effects of Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but severe side effect of Metformin, particularly in individuals with renal or liver issues. It is crucial for clients taking Metformin to be aware of the symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, stomach discomfort, and feeling cold. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Metformin but can occur when combined with other antidiabetic medications. Choice C, hyperlipidemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Metformin. Choice D, weight gain, is not associated with Metformin use; in fact, Metformin is often associated with weight loss or weight neutrality.

3. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

4. A client has a prescription for Acyclovir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Acyclovir is to increase fluid intake during therapy. Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, potentially leading to kidney damage. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by promoting adequate renal function and drug elimination. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acyclovir is usually prescribed for short-term use, there is no need to avoid sexual contact while on the medication, and nausea is not a common side effect that necessitates immediate consultation with a healthcare provider.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. The nasal spray vaccine (LAIV) is a live attenuated vaccine that is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years. Pregnancy (choice C) is a contraindication for the nasal spray influenza vaccine. Children under 2 years of age (choice A) are also not candidates for the nasal spray. Taking a multivitamin supplement (choice D) is not a determining factor for the type of influenza vaccine a person should receive.

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