Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

2. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is experiencing muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers by increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, thereby helping to restore muscle strength. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, not neuromuscular blockade. Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not to reverse neuromuscular blockade. Vecuronium is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, like the one the client received, and is not used to reverse its effects.

3. A client has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Sedation
• B. Nasal congestion
• C. Productive cough
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. After more than 5 days of use, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion. This occurs due to prolonged vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels, causing worsening nasal congestion. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine nasal drops. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with this medication.

4. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Atropine
• B. Protamine sulfate
• C. Calcium carbonate
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Heparin by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant properties. It is crucial to administer Protamine sulfate promptly in cases of Heparin overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is required to prevent bleeding complications. Atropine is not the antidote for Heparin; it is commonly used for treating bradycardia. Calcium carbonate is used to treat conditions like acid indigestion, heartburn, or calcium deficiency. Ferrous sulfate is a form of iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. None of these alternatives are antidotes for Heparin.

5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Prednisone?

• A. Cushing’s disease
• B. Testicular cancer
• C. Lymphomas
• D. Chronic leukemias

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone is not a common treatment for testicular cancer. Prednisone is used in conditions like Cushing’s disease, lymphomas, and chronic leukemias due to its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. However, testicular cancer treatment typically involves surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy, but not Prednisone.

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