ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) and asks the nurse what type of drug this is. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. “A beta blocker.â€
- B. “A sodium channel blocker.â€
- C. “An alpha blocker.â€
- D. “A calcium channel blocker.â€
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diltiazem (Cardizem) belongs to the class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers. These medications work by blocking calcium from entering the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, leading to relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. This helps in lowering blood pressure and improving blood flow. It is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client about the type of drug prescribed to ensure understanding and compliance with the treatment plan.
2. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?
- A. Seizures
- B. Hypotension
- C. Insomnia
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences permanent extrapyramidal effects caused by a previous medication. The healthcare professional should recognize that the medication affected which of the following systems in the client?
- A. Cardiovascular
- B. Immune
- C. Central nervous
- D. Gastrointestinal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central nervous. Extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders caused by certain medications affecting the central nervous system. These effects can include symptoms like tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Medications like typical antipsychotics induce extrapyramidal effects by interfering with dopamine transmission in the central nervous system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as extrapyramidal effects are specifically related to the central nervous system and not the cardiovascular, immune, or gastrointestinal systems.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 200 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 100 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.
5. A client is receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Leukocytosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Fever
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hypertension when receiving epoetin alfa. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension promptly. Leukocytosis refers to an increased white blood cell count and is not directly related to epoetin alfa treatment. Hyperkalemia is an elevated potassium level, which is not a common adverse effect of epoetin alfa. Fever is not a typical finding associated with epoetin alfa therapy.
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