when should a nurse perform hand hygiene
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. When should healthcare professionals perform hand hygiene?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Healthcare professionals should perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact to prevent the spread of infections. While choices B, C, and D are also important times to practice hand hygiene, they are not as crucial as before and after patient contact because patient contact poses a higher risk of transmitting infections.

2. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been receiving lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The nurse notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering the medication is appropriate for a stable lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. A level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for lithium, indicating that the client is receiving an adequate dose to maintain therapeutic effects. Withholding the next dose, increasing the dosage, or discontinuing the medication would not be indicated at this lithium level as it is within the desired range for therapeutic benefit. Therefore, the correct action would be to continue administering the medication to ensure the client maintains the therapeutic level of lithium.

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