ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. When should healthcare professionals perform hand hygiene?
- A. Before and after patient contact
- B. Before and after performing procedures
- C. After using the restroom
- D. After touching contaminated surfaces
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Healthcare professionals should perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact to prevent the spread of infections. While choices B, C, and D are also important times to practice hand hygiene, they are not as crucial as before and after patient contact because patient contact poses a higher risk of transmitting infections.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Hair loss
- C. Nausea
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
- B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
- C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
- D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.
4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take a tablet every 5 minutes for pain relief, up to three doses.
- B. Take this medication with a glass of water.
- C. Chew the tablet for faster absorption.
- D. Store the tablets in a refrigerator.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take a tablet every 5 minutes for pain relief, up to three doses.' Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are used to relieve chest pain or to prevent chest pain before activities known to cause angina. The tablets should be taken every 5 minutes for pain relief, up to three doses, as prescribed. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue until they dissolve, not taken with water. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be chewed but placed under the tongue for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature away from light and moisture.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Elevated hemoglobin
- B. Elevated white blood cell count
- C. Decreased fibrinogen level
- D. Decreased platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.
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