a nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1 day old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice which action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1-day old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the infant's head covered with a cap. This helps regulate the newborn's body temperature during phototherapy. Option A, feeding the infant glucose water every 2 hours, is incorrect because it is not a standard intervention for newborns receiving phototherapy. Option B, ensuring the newborn wears a diaper, may be necessary for hygiene but is not directly related to phototherapy. Option D, applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours, is unnecessary and not indicated for managing jaundice or phototherapy.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.

4. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client, the nurse should apply sterile gloves before cleansing the perineal area to prevent infection. Performing perineal care before the procedure is incorrect as it should be done after catheter insertion. Placing the client in a side-lying position is not necessary for this procedure. Lubricating the catheter with petroleum jelly is not recommended as it can damage the catheter; using a water-soluble lubricant is preferred.

5. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

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