ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. When teaching a client about nutritional intake, what should be included?
- A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake.
- B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake.
- C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake.
- D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about nutritional intake, it is important to mention that carbohydrates should constitute at least 45% of their daily caloric intake for a balanced diet. This macronutrient provides energy and is essential for proper bodily functions. Choice B is incorrect because protein should typically account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is too low for the recommended carbohydrate intake, as it should be higher at 45%. Choice D is incorrect as protein intake should generally be around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Check oxygen saturation
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen is crucial in managing a patient with respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. While administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, in a patient with respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Checking oxygen saturation is important, but the immediate intervention to address respiratory distress is providing supplemental oxygen. Repositioning the patient may be helpful in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention in managing acute respiratory distress.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare professional identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID.
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily.
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides the medication (Metoprolol), dosage (5 mg), route of administration (IV), and timing (now), making it a complete prescription. Choices A, B, and C lack either the route of administration or timing, making them incomplete prescriptions. For choice A, it lacks the route of administration, and for choices B and C, they lack the timing of administration.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
- B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
- D. Client reports dyspnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings is an indication for hemodialysis?
- A. BUN 16 mg/dL
- B. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
- C. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
- D. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min indicates severe kidney impairment and the need for hemodialysis. The other choices, such as BUN 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.
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