ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen
- D. Start IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing intervention for a patient with an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing acute asthma symptoms. Administering corticosteroids (Choice B) is also important in the treatment plan, but it is not the priority intervention during an acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority initial intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice D) is not typically indicated as a priority intervention for an acute asthma attack.
2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 78/min.
- B. Vision changes.
- C. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
- D. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vision changes. Vision changes are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. A heart rate of 78/min, a respiratory rate of 16/min, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg are within normal ranges and are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they would not be the priority findings to report in this situation.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What question should the nurse ask?
- A. Do you understand the voices are not real?
- B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
- C. Have you tried going to a quiet place when this occurs?
- D. What helps you ignore the voices?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Exploring strategies to ignore the hallucinations can help clients manage symptoms.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lipsmacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has cardiac disease. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to promote optimal cardiac output?
- A. Semi-Fowler's
- B. Supine with head elevated
- C. Left lateral
- D. Right lateral
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Left lateral. Placing the client in the left lateral position helps promote optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by avoiding pressure on the vena cava. This position improves venous return to the heart and subsequently cardiac output. Option A, Semi-Fowler's position, may not be the best choice for a client with cardiac disease as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Option B, supine with head elevated, can also compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output. Option D, right lateral position, does not provide the same benefits as the left lateral position for cardiac output during pregnancy.
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