ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Left upper quadrant pain.
- B. Periumbilical pain.
- C. Rebound tenderness.
- D. Flank pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is A, left upper quadrant pain. In acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas commonly causes pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. This pain can be severe and radiate to the back. Periumbilical pain (choice B) is more indicative of acute appendicitis. Rebound tenderness (choice C) is associated with peritoneal inflammation, not specifically pancreatitis. Flank pain (choice D) is more characteristic of conditions involving the kidneys or ureters, such as renal colic.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
- B. I will have my INR checked regularly while taking warfarin.
- C. I will use a soft toothbrush while taking warfarin.
- D. I will take this medication at the same time each day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin should avoid leafy green vegetables because they are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements related to taking warfarin. Regular INR monitoring is necessary to ensure the medication is within the therapeutic range, using a soft toothbrush reduces the risk of bleeding gums, and taking the medication at the same time daily helps maintain consistent blood levels.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient presenting with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Provide humidified air
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most critical intervention for a patient in respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation levels. Oxygen therapy aims to increase oxygen saturation in the blood, providing relief and support during episodes of respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in some cases, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation. Repositioning the patient may help optimize ventilation but does not directly address the primary need for increased oxygen. Providing humidified air can offer comfort but does not address the urgent need for improved oxygen levels in a patient experiencing respiratory distress.
5. What is the priority intervention for a patient with dehydration?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Administer oral fluids
- D. Provide electrolyte replacement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is the priority as it helps rapidly restore hydration in patients with dehydration by delivering fluids directly into the bloodstream. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but comes after providing immediate fluid resuscitation. Administering oral fluids (choice C) may not be sufficient for a patient with dehydration who requires rapid rehydration. Providing electrolyte replacement (choice D) is essential but often follows fluid resuscitation to correct any electrolyte imbalances resulting from dehydration.
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