a nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is A, left upper quadrant pain. In acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas commonly causes pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. This pain can be severe and radiate to the back. Periumbilical pain (choice B) is more indicative of acute appendicitis. Rebound tenderness (choice C) is associated with peritoneal inflammation, not specifically pancreatitis. Flank pain (choice D) is more characteristic of conditions involving the kidneys or ureters, such as renal colic.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should turn the client onto their side. This action helps maintain an open airway by allowing saliva or any vomitus to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration. Inserting a tongue depressor (choice A) is incorrect as it can cause injury to the client's mouth and is not recommended during a seizure. Restraining the client's arms and legs (choice B) can lead to physical harm and should be avoided. Placing the client in a prone position (choice D) is dangerous as it can obstruct the airway and hinder breathing, which is not suitable for a client experiencing a seizure.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a stroke. What instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take medications at the same time every day.' Consistency in medication administration is crucial for stroke recovery to maintain therapeutic drug levels in the body. Choice A, 'Avoid lifting more than 5 pounds,' though important to prevent strain, is not directly related to medication adherence. Choice B, 'Perform range-of-motion exercises daily,' is beneficial for overall recovery but is not specific to medication management. Choice D, 'Monitor blood pressure daily,' is important but does not address the key aspect of medication regimen adherence.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.

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