Nursing Elites

1. When administering Tapazole, The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effect?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Seizure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

2. The lobe of the brain that contains the auditory receptive areas is the ____________ lobe.

• A. temporal
• B. frontal
• C. parietal
• D. occipital

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

3. Each nonnutritive sweetener can be recommended to patients with phenylketonuria, except one. Which one is the exception?

• A. Cyclamate
• B. Acesulfame-K
• C. Saccharin
• D. Aspartame

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Aspartame. Aspartame contains phenylalanine, which is contraindicated for individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU), a genetic disorder that impairs phenylalanine metabolism. Therefore, patients with PKU should avoid aspartame. Choices A, B, and C (Cyclamate, Acesulfame-K, Saccharin) are considered safe for individuals with PKU as they do not contain phenylalanine and can be recommended as alternatives to sugar for these patients.

4. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

5. Each statement is true of vitamin K, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Vitamin K is produced in the gut.
• B. Vitamin K functions as a catalyst for the synthesis of blood-clotting factors.
• C. Vitamin K maintains prothrombin levels.
• D. Vitamin K absorption increases with high levels of vitamin E supplementation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vitamin K absorption decreases with high levels of vitamin E supplementation because in larger amounts, vitamin E acts as an anticoagulant. Vitamin K is not produced in the gut but can be obtained from food sources or supplements. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of blood-clotting factors and is crucial in maintaining prothrombin levels, which is vital for proper blood clotting. The incorrect choice, D, is misleading as high levels of vitamin E supplementation hinder vitamin K absorption due to its anticoagulant properties. Dental hygienists should be aware of the importance of vitamin K in blood clotting, especially when treating patients who are on anticoagulant medications for conditions like stroke prevention.

Similar Questions