ATI RN
ATI RN Nutrition Online Practice 2019
1. When administering Tapazole, The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effect?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Seizure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
2. Which of the following is a hallmark sign of intussusception in children?
- A. Bilious vomiting
- B. "Currant jelly" stools
- C. Abdominal distention
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: "Currant jelly" stools, consisting of mucus and blood, are characteristic of intussusception in children. It occurs due to the telescoping of a segment of the intestine into an adjacent segment, leading to obstruction and subsequent mucosal ischemia, causing the passage of bloody mucus in the stool. Bilious vomiting can be seen in other conditions like bowel obstruction, abdominal distention can be present but is not as specific, and constipation is less likely in the presentation of intussusception.
3. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
- A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
- B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. Heart rate 58/min.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
- D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
5. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Lean cuts of pork.
- B. Low-fat yogurt.
- C. White bread.
- D. Oatmeal.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.