ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Establish IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina as it helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, relieve chest pain, and prevent further cardiac damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) may be important but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin in this scenario. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and administering aspirin (choice D) are also important aspects of managing unstable angina, but they are not the immediate priority intervention when a patient is experiencing chest pain.
2. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
3. A patient reports abdominal cramping during an enema administration. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the flow of the enema
- B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- C. Stop the enema procedure
- D. Remove the enema tubing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during an enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the container helps to relieve cramping by slowing the flow of the solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow (Choice A) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure (Choice C) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (Choice D) is not the initial action indicated for cramping; adjusting the height is the more appropriate intervention.
4. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
- C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
- D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.
5. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?
- A. Synchronized cardioversion
- B. Defibrillation
- C. Medication administration
- D. Pacing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat unstable tachyarrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Choice B, defibrillation, is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Choice C, medication administration, may not provide immediate correction for unstable ventricular tachycardia. Choice D, pacing, is not the first-line treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
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