Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary nursing action for a patient experiencing continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Clamp the chest tube
• C. Continue monitoring the chest tube
• D. Replace the chest tube system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicates an air leak. By tightening the connections of the chest tube system, the nurse can often resolve the issue by ensuring there are no loose connections allowing air to enter. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system are not appropriate actions in this situation. Clamping the tube can cause a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the system should only be considered if tightening the connections does not resolve the air leak.

2. What precaution should be advised to patients following cataract surgery?

• A. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
• B. Use warm compresses
• C. Avoid NSAIDs
• D. Avoid bright lights

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients who have undergone cataract surgery should wear dark glasses when outdoors to shield their eyes from light exposure, which can be uncomfortable or harmful during the recovery period. Using warm compresses (choice B) is not typically recommended after cataract surgery as it's more relevant for certain eye conditions. Avoiding NSAIDs (choice C) is advised to prevent bleeding complications, but it is not directly related to eye protection post-surgery. While avoiding bright lights (choice D) is crucial, wearing dark glasses provides a practical solution to achieve this, making choice A the most appropriate precaution.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

4. What is the priority action for a patient experiencing chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain IV access
• C. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
• D. Administer aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart, which is crucial in managing acute coronary syndrome. While obtaining IV access and checking cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome, administering nitroglycerin takes precedence to alleviate symptoms and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering aspirin is also essential in the treatment of acute coronary syndrome, but it is not the immediate priority in this scenario.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

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