what should be included in teaching for a patient with pre dialysis end stage kidney disease
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What should be included in teaching for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive phosphorus intake can lead to further complications in kidney disease, such as bone and cardiovascular issues. Choice B is incorrect as increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys due to the buildup of urea and other waste products. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can worsen hypertension and fluid retention, common issues in kidney disease. Choice D is incorrect as limiting sodium intake is generally recommended in kidney disease to manage blood pressure and fluid balance.

2. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

3. What should the nurse do when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the height helps relieve cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it does not directly address the cramping issue. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, could potentially worsen the cramping by prolonging the discomfort. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, is also incorrect as it may intensify the cramping and cause more discomfort to the patient.

4. A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for? Corrected Choice A: Muscle weakness Corrected Choice B: Flattened T waves Corrected Choice C: Checking deep tendon reflexes Corrected Choice D: Seizures Rationale: Hypokalemia is associated with muscle weakness due to the effect of low potassium levels on muscle function. Flattened T waves on an ECG are characteristic of hypokalemia but are not a direct assessment for the patient's condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes and seizures are not primary symptoms associated with hypokalemia, making them less relevant for monitoring a patient with this electrolyte imbalance.

5. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.

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