ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What should be included in teaching for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase protein intake to 1g/kg/day
- C. Increase sodium intake
- D. Limit sodium to 1,500 mg/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive phosphorus intake can lead to further complications in kidney disease, such as bone and cardiovascular issues. Choice B is incorrect as increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys due to the buildup of urea and other waste products. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can worsen hypertension and fluid retention, common issues in kidney disease. Choice D is incorrect as limiting sodium intake is generally recommended in kidney disease to manage blood pressure and fluid balance.
2. A patient reports abdominal cramping after enema administration. What action should the nurse take to relieve the discomfort?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Increase the flow of enema solution
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Stop the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to relieve abdominal cramping after enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment slows down the flow rate of the enema solution, which can help reduce discomfort by decreasing the pressure on the patient's abdomen. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) would exacerbate the cramping by introducing more solution quickly. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) is not necessary to address the cramping, and stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not be needed if adjusting the height of the solution container can resolve the issue.
3. A patient with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does this indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. A blocked chest tube
- C. Drainage from the site
- D. Blood clot in the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as lung collapse. A blocked chest tube would typically result in absent or fluctuating bubbling. Drainage from the site would be observed in the collection chamber, not the water seal chamber. A blood clot in the chest tube would lead to cessation of drainage.
4. What are the expected symptoms of a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Severe headache and confusion
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' In a thrombotic stroke, a clot blocks a cerebral artery, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choice B, 'Sudden loss of consciousness,' is more characteristic of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice C, 'Severe headache and confusion,' are often associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than thrombotic stroke. Choice D, 'Loss of sensation in the affected limb,' is not a typical symptom pattern for a thrombotic stroke, which usually presents with motor deficits.
5. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Monitor for anemia
- C. Monitor for dehydration
- D. Monitor for bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.
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