what should be included in teaching for a patient with pre dialysis end stage kidney disease
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What should be included in teaching for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive phosphorus intake can lead to further complications in kidney disease, such as bone and cardiovascular issues. Choice B is incorrect as increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys due to the buildup of urea and other waste products. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can worsen hypertension and fluid retention, common issues in kidney disease. Choice D is incorrect as limiting sodium intake is generally recommended in kidney disease to manage blood pressure and fluid balance.

2. What are the common manifestations of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct manifestations of compartment syndrome are unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate compromised blood flow and neurovascular compromise, necessitating immediate medical intervention. Redness and swelling (Choice B) are more commonly associated with inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Swelling and redness (Choice D) are general signs that can be seen in various conditions and are not specific to compartment syndrome.

3. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

4. What is the correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping is to lower the height of the enema container. Lowering the height reduces the flow rate, which can help relieve cramping. Stopping the procedure (choice B) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (choice C) is not the initial step to take when addressing abdominal cramping during an enema. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the container to alleviate cramping.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in the circumference of the client's upper arm by 10% could indicate deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition. Deep vein thrombosis can impede blood flow and potentially lead to life-threatening complications. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately about this finding. Choice A is not an immediate concern as PICC dressing changes are usually done every 7 days. Choice C is a normal finding as catheters may not be used for certain periods. Choice D is a correct procedure for maintaining catheter patency after medication use.

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