Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is hyperventilating and has the following ABG results: pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. Hyperventilation leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide, causing a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in pH levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by high PaCO2 and low pH. Metabolic acidosis is associated with low HCO3- levels and low pH. Metabolic alkalosis is marked by high HCO3- levels and high pH. In this case, the ABG results indicate respiratory alkalosis.

2. A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
• B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
• C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
• D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.

3. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
• D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

4. What intervention should the nurse take for a patient experiencing delayed wound healing?

• A. Monitor serum albumin levels
• B. Apply a dry dressing
• C. Administer antibiotics
• D. Change the wound dressing every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial for patients with delayed wound healing. Low albumin levels indicate a lack of protein, which can impair the healing process and increase the risk of infection. By monitoring serum albumin levels, the nurse can assess the patient's nutritional status and make necessary interventions to promote wound healing. Applying a dry dressing (Choice B) may be appropriate depending on the wound characteristics, but it does not address the underlying cause of delayed healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for delayed wound healing unless there is an active infection present. Changing the wound dressing every 8 hours (Choice D) may lead to excessive disruption of the wound bed and hinder the healing process.

5. What are the dietary instructions for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Increase protein intake
• B. Reduce sodium intake
• C. Reduce potassium intake
• D. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excessive protein intake can worsen kidney function in such patients. Increasing protein intake, as mentioned in choice A, is not recommended due to the strain it puts on the kidneys. While reducing sodium intake, as in choice B, is relevant for managing blood pressure, it is not specifically related to pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Choice C, reducing potassium intake, is important for patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary instruction for those with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

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