Nursing Elites

1. What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Limit potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.

2. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
• D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

3. What are the expected manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Loss of sensation in the affected extremity
• C. Sudden loss of consciousness
• D. Seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. Thrombotic strokes are caused by a clot forming in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms due to impaired blood flow to specific brain regions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of sensation, sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, and convulsions are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes. In a thrombotic stroke, the symptoms develop slowly over time, often over minutes to hours, and include manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body, along with other symptoms related to the affected brain area.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has sustained multiple injuries. The nurse observes the client's thorax moving inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. The nurse should suspect which of the following injuries?

• A. Flail chest
• B. Hemothorax
• C. Pulmonary contusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flail chest. Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures, causing paradoxical chest movement where the injured part moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration, interfering with ventilation. Choice B, Hemothorax, involves blood in the pleural cavity and does not typically cause paradoxical chest movement. Choice C, Pulmonary contusion, is a bruise to the lung tissue and does not present with paradoxical chest movement. Choice D, Pneumothorax, is the presence of air in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse, but it does not demonstrate paradoxical chest movement like in flail chest.

5. What recommendations should the nurse provide to a patient diagnosed with GERD?

• A. Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion
• B. Eat small, frequent meals
• C. Avoid eating 1 hour before bedtime
• D. Avoid black and red pepper

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion.' Mint can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased gastric acid secretion and worsening GERD symptoms. Choice B is a good recommendation for GERD management as it helps prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice C is also a recommended practice to avoid reflux during sleep. Choice D, avoiding black and red pepper, is not directly linked to exacerbating GERD symptoms, so it is not the most relevant recommendation for a patient diagnosed with GERD.

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