Nursing Elites

1. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. Serum albumin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

2. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.

3. What is an escharotomy, and why is it performed?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To reduce pain in the affected area
• C. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• D. To remove fluid from a burn wound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical procedure performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. Choice A is the correct answer because the primary goal of an escharotomy is to prevent compartment syndrome caused by increased pressure within the affected tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an escharotomy is not primarily performed to reduce pain, remove necrotic tissue, or drain fluid from a burn wound, but to address the specific issue of compromised blood flow and pressure within deep burn injuries.

4. What is the priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain IV access
• C. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
• D. Administer aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing cardiac workload, and improving blood supply to the heart muscle, thus relieving pain and enhancing blood flow to the heart. While obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids, it is not the priority over addressing pain and improving blood flow. Checking the patient's cardiac enzymes is crucial for diagnosis and ongoing management but not the immediate priority when the patient is in pain. Administering aspirin is also a vital intervention in acute coronary syndrome, but in this scenario, it is not the priority action compared to providing immediate pain relief and enhancing blood flow to the heart.

5. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Widened QRS complexes
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.

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