ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What are the actions of the drug metformin?
- A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption
- B. Increases sensitivity to insulin
- C. Short-term sedation
- D. Both A and B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metformin has dual actions by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption, which helps in reducing blood glucose levels. Additionally, it increases sensitivity to insulin, aiding in its proper utilization within the body. Choice A is correct as metformin acts by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption. Choice B is also correct as metformin increases sensitivity to insulin. Choice C, short-term sedation, is incorrect as metformin is not known for causing sedation. Therefore, the correct answer is D because metformin performs both of these actions.
2. A client is being taught by a nurse about long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Weight Gain
- B. Nervousness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of long-term prednisone use. Prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, can cause fluid retention and increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Nervousness (choice B) is more commonly associated with stimulant medications or excessive caffeine intake. Bradycardia (choice C) refers to a slow heart rate and is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone. Constipation (choice D) is not a common side effect of prednisone; in fact, prednisone is more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues such as increased appetite and weight gain.
3. A healthcare provider is educating a group of new parents about immunizations. The provider should instruct the parents that the series for which of the following vaccines is completed prior to the first birthday?
- A. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
- B. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
- C. Varicella vaccine
- D. Rotavirus vaccine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The series for the Rotavirus vaccine is completed prior to the first birthday as it is only administered to infants less than 8 months of age. This vaccine provides protection against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the series for these vaccines extends beyond the first birthday. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and Meningococcal conjugate vaccine are typically given in multiple doses up to 2 years of age, while the Varicella vaccine is usually administered between 12 to 15 months of age.
4. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.
5. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?
- A. Decreased fever
- B. Decreased sense of anxiety
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased seizure activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.
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