Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking this medication with orange juice.
• C. Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.
• D. Expect a persistent cough while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.' Filgrastim is known to cause bone pain as a common side effect. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to report any bone pain to their healthcare provider to monitor for potential complications or the need for further management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Filgrastim with food, avoiding it with orange juice, and expecting a persistent cough are not relevant instructions associated with this medication.

2. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

3. A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.

• A. H
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Antifungal
• D. Beta agonist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Drugs ending in the suffix -azole are commonly associated with antifungal medications. Examples include fluconazole, ketoconazole, and itraconazole. These medications are used to treat fungal infections by inhibiting the growth of fungi. Therefore, the correct answer is option C, 'Antifungal'. Options A, B, and D do not accurately describe drugs ending in -azole.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

5. A client is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating broccoli.
• B. I will use an electric razor to shave.
• C. I will take aspirin for headaches.
• D. I will have my blood tested regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking aspirin along with Warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding. Clients should be advised to avoid medications that increase the risk of bleeding when taking Warfarin to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements indicating good understanding of Warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in Vitamin K, using an electric razor to prevent cuts that can lead to bleeding, and regular blood testing to monitor Warfarin levels are all important aspects of managing Warfarin therapy.

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