Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to detect early signs of infection and prevent complications. Dizziness (choice A), urinary frequency (choice C), and dry mouth (choice D) are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are not the primary concerns that the nurse needs to address with the client.

2. A client in an acute mental health facility is experiencing withdrawal from Opioid use and has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Administer the clonidine on the prescribed schedule.
• B. Provide ice chips at the client's bedside.
• C. Educate the client on the effects of clonidine.
• D. Obtain baseline vital signs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This step is crucial in assessing the client's current physiological status and establishing a reference point for monitoring the effects of Clonidine. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the client are important tasks but assessing the client's vital signs takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being during withdrawal management.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare professional should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is pregnant
• B. A client who has osteoarthritis
• C. A client who has a kidney stone
• D. A client who has a urinary tract infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy as it can induce labor and potentially lead to harm to the fetus. Therefore, it should not be used in pregnant clients due to its uterotonic effects. For clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stone, or urinary tract infection, Misoprostol is not contraindicated specifically for these conditions.

5. An older adult client has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. The nurse should recognize that concurrent use of which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Verapamil
• C. Warfarin
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to toxicity. When given together, the digoxin dosage may need adjustment, and the nurse should closely monitor the client's digoxin levels to prevent toxicity symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and arrhythmias. The other choices, Phenytoin, Warfarin, and Aluminum hydroxide, do not significantly interact with Digoxin to cause toxicity. Phenytoin may reduce Digoxin levels, while Warfarin and Aluminum hydroxide have minimal interactions with Digoxin.

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