Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing a client's medications. Which of the following actions should the professional take to follow legal practice guidelines? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Maintain skill competency.
• B. Determine the dosage.
• C. Monitor for adverse effects.
• D. Safeguard medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintaining skill competency is a critical aspect of legal practice guidelines for healthcare professionals. It is essential to ensure that healthcare professionals are competent and up-to-date with their skills to provide safe and effective care to patients. While determining the dosage, monitoring for adverse effects, and safeguarding medications are important aspects of medication administration, maintaining skill competency is a fundamental legal responsibility that ensures the delivery of quality care. Determining the dosage and monitoring for adverse effects are clinical responsibilities, while safeguarding medications pertains to proper storage and handling, not specifically related to legal practice guidelines.

2. When instructing a client with a new prescription for Timolol on how to insert eye drops, which area should the nurse instruct the client to press on to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?

• A. Bony orbit
• B. Nasolacrimal duct
• C. Conjunctival sac
• D. Outer canthus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct, located near the inner corner of the eye, blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents the medication from entering the systemic circulation. This technique helps to ensure the medication stays localized in the eye, enhancing its therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The bony orbit is the eye socket and not a site to press for preventing systemic absorption. The conjunctival sac is where eye drops are instilled, not pressed on. The outer canthus is also not the correct area to press to prevent systemic absorption.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The healthcare provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

• A. Atrophic vaginitis
• B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Thrombophlebitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in individuals with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and blood clot formation in the veins, and estrogen therapy can exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Therefore, caution is advised when considering estrogen therapy in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and dysfunctional uterine bleeding may actually be conditions for which estrogen therapy is indicated. Osteoporosis can also be managed with estrogen therapy in certain cases to help prevent bone density loss.

5. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

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